Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Types of Risk questions:
Confusing systematic (non-diversifiable) vs unsystematic (diversifiable) risk
Forgetting that beta only measures systematic risk
Not understanding how diversification reduces unsystematic risk
Sample Practice Questions
Which of the following types of risk cannot be reduced through portfolio diversification?
B is correct. Systematic risk (also called market risk or non-diversifiable risk) affects the entire market or economy and cannot be eliminated through diversification. This includes risks like inflation, interest rate changes, and overall market movements that impact all securities.
A (Business risk), C (Credit risk), and D (Liquidity risk) are all unsystematic risks that can be reduced or eliminated through diversification. By holding 15-20 different securities across various companies and industries, investors can minimize exposure to company-specific or industry-specific risks.
This fundamental distinction is one of the most tested concepts on the Series 65 exam. Understanding what can and cannot be diversified away is essential for portfolio construction and client advice. The exam frequently asks which risks remain in a well-diversified portfolio (only systematic risk). This concept connects directly to beta measurement and modern portfolio theory. Remember: diversification protects you from company-specific problems, but not from market-wide events.
A stock with a beta of 1.5 would be expected to be how volatile compared to the overall market?
A is correct. A beta of 1.5 means the stock is expected to be 50% more volatile than the market. If the market moves up 10%, this stock would typically move up 15% (50% more). Beta measures systematic risk relative to the market, where the market has a beta of 1.0.
C (1.5 times as volatile) is incorrect because this would describe the total magnitude, not the relative difference. The correct interpretation is 50% more volatile, not 150% as volatile. A common exam trap is confusing "1.5 times" with "50% more." They're mathematically related but conceptually different. B and D are incorrect as they misinterpret how beta values work. Beta of 1.5 indicates greater volatility than the market, not less or equal.
Beta interpretation appears frequently on the Series 65 exam, often in portfolio analysis questions. Understanding beta helps advisers assess risk levels and set appropriate client expectations. Remember: beta of 1.0 = market volatility, beta > 1 = more volatile, beta < 1 = less volatile. Beta only measures systematic risk, not total risk.
An investor holds a 20-year Treasury bond purchased when interest rates were lower. If interest rates rise significantly, which type of risk does this investor face?
B is correct. Interest rate risk is the risk that bond prices will fall when interest rates rise. Since this investor's bond was purchased when rates were lower, rising rates will cause the bond's market value to decline due to the inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates. Longer maturity bonds like this 20-year Treasury have more interest rate risk.
A (Credit risk) is incorrect because Treasury securities have virtually no default risk. C (Reinvestment risk) is incorrect because that's the opposite risk. It occurs when rates fall and coupon payments must be reinvested at lower rates. D (Call risk) is incorrect because Treasury bonds are not callable.
Interest rate risk is heavily tested on the Series 65, especially the inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates. This is one of the three common mistakes listed for this subtopic. The exam often presents scenarios where rates move and asks which risk materializes. Remember: rising rates = falling bond prices (interest rate risk), falling rates = reinvestment risk. Longer maturity bonds have MORE interest rate risk than shorter maturity bonds.
Which type of bond has the HIGHEST level of credit risk (default risk)?
D is correct. High-yield corporate bonds (also called junk bonds) have the highest credit risk because they are issued by companies with lower credit ratings and greater financial uncertainty. These bonds pay higher yields to compensate investors for the increased risk of default.
A (Treasury bonds) is incorrect because U.S. government securities are considered to have zero default risk. B (AAA-rated corporate bonds) is incorrect because these have the highest investment-grade rating and very low default risk. C (Investment-grade municipal bonds) is incorrect because these also have low default risk, though higher than Treasuries.
Credit risk is a fundamental concept that appears in multiple contexts on the Series 65. Understanding the credit risk spectrum (from risk-free Treasuries to speculative high-yield bonds) is essential for suitability recommendations. The exam tests whether you know that higher yields mean higher risk. This concept connects to client profiling: conservative investors should avoid high credit risk, while aggressive investors may accept it for higher potential returns. Remember: yield and risk move together.
A retired client living on a fixed pension is MOST concerned about which type of risk?
B is correct. Purchasing power risk (inflation risk) is the greatest concern for someone on a fixed income because inflation erodes the real value of their fixed payments over time. If their pension pays the same dollar amount each year, but costs rise due to inflation, they can buy less with their income.
A (Market risk) is incorrect because while relevant for investments, it doesn't directly address the erosion of fixed income purchasing power. C (Business risk) is incorrect because this is company-specific risk that doesn't apply to pension income. D (Currency risk) is incorrect because this only affects foreign investments and isn't the primary concern for domestic fixed-income recipients.
Purchasing power risk is a critical concept for retirement planning questions on the Series 65. The exam often tests whether you understand that retirees on fixed incomes are particularly vulnerable to inflation. This connects to investment recommendations: retirees need some inflation protection, which is why portfolios shouldn't be 100% fixed income. The PRIME mnemonic includes this as the "P" in systematic risks. Remember: inflation hurts fixed-income investments and fixed-income people the most.
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Access Free BetaWhich measure is used to evaluate the TOTAL risk of an individual security or portfolio?
B is correct. Standard deviation measures total risk, including both systematic and unsystematic risk. It quantifies how much returns vary from the average, with higher standard deviation indicating more volatility and risk.
A (Beta) is incorrect because beta only measures systematic risk (market risk), not total risk. C (Alpha) is incorrect because alpha measures excess return compared to a benchmark, not risk. D (R-squared) is incorrect because it measures how closely a portfolio's movements correlate with a benchmark, not the amount of risk.
Understanding the difference between standard deviation (total risk) and beta (systematic risk only) is crucial for the Series 65 exam. This is specifically mentioned as a common mistake in the subtopic guidance. Use standard deviation for individual securities or undiversified portfolios; use beta for well-diversified portfolios. The exam often asks which measure to use in different situations. This concept connects to the Sharpe ratio (uses standard deviation) versus Treynor ratio (uses beta).
An investor holds a callable corporate bond. If interest rates decline, which risk is the investor MOST likely to face?
C is correct. Call risk is the risk that the issuer will redeem (call) the bond early when interest rates fall. Issuers call bonds to refinance at lower rates, leaving investors to reinvest their returned principal at the new, lower prevailing rates. This is most likely to occur in a declining interest rate environment.
A (Default risk) is incorrect because falling rates don't increase default probability. B (Extension risk) is incorrect because this is the opposite. It occurs when rates rise and prepayments slow. D (Interest rate risk) is incorrect because falling rates increase bond prices, which benefits the holder. However, the call feature prevents them from fully capturing this gain.
Call risk appears regularly on the Series 65, especially in questions about bond features and interest rate environments. Understanding when bonds are likely to be called (when rates fall) helps advisers evaluate callable bonds and explain risks to clients. Remember: issuers call bonds when it benefits them (rates fall), not when it benefits investors. This is why callable bonds offer higher yields than similar non-callable bonds. Investors demand compensation for call risk.
Which type of bond has NO reinvestment risk?
A is correct. Zero-coupon bonds have no reinvestment risk because they make no periodic interest payments (coupons) that need to be reinvested. The investor receives a single payment at maturity, eliminating the risk of having to reinvest coupon payments at lower interest rates.
B (High-coupon corporate bonds), C (Treasury notes), and D (Municipal bonds) all incorrect because they pay periodic interest that must be reinvested. This creates reinvestment risk, which is the risk that when interest rates fall, the coupon payments will have to be reinvested at lower rates than originally anticipated.
Reinvestment risk is a systematic risk that appears on most Series 65 exams. Understanding that zero-coupon bonds eliminate this risk while having other characteristics (high interest rate sensitivity, no current income) is important for portfolio construction. The exam may test this by asking which bond type is appropriate for someone worried about reinvestment risk. Remember: reinvestment risk is the opposite of interest rate risk. It hurts investors when rates fall, not when they rise.
Business risk and financial risk are examples of which category of risk?
D is correct. Business risk (operational uncertainty, poor management, competitive pressures) and financial risk (excessive debt/leverage) are both unsystematic risks. They are specific to individual companies or industries and can be reduced through diversification.
A (Systematic risk), B (Market risk), and C (Non-diversifiable risk) are all incorrect because they refer to the same concept: risks that affect the entire market and cannot be diversified away. Business and financial risks are company-specific problems that can be mitigated by holding a diversified portfolio of securities.
This question directly tests one of the three common mistakes for this subtopic: confusing systematic versus unsystematic risk. The exam frequently asks you to categorize different types of risk. Remember the PRIME mnemonic for systematic risks (Purchasing power, Reinvestment, Interest rate, Market, Exchange rate). If it's not in PRIME, it's likely unsystematic. Understanding this distinction helps you explain to clients why diversification works: it eliminates company-specific risks but can't eliminate market-wide risks.
A well-diversified portfolio of 20 stocks will have eliminated most of its:
C is correct. Research shows that holding approximately 15-20 securities can eliminate most unsystematic risk (company-specific and industry-specific risk) from a portfolio. Beyond this number, additional diversification provides diminishing benefits for risk reduction.
A (Systematic risk), B (Interest rate risk), and D (Market risk) are all incorrect because these are systematic risks that affect the entire market and cannot be eliminated through diversification, no matter how many securities you hold. A well-diversified portfolio still faces these market-wide risks, which is why investors receive a risk premium for bearing them.
Understanding how diversification works is fundamental to portfolio management and appears on every Series 65 exam. This addresses the common mistake: "not understanding how diversification reduces unsystematic risk." The exam often presents scenarios asking what happens as you add more securities to a portfolio. The answer is always that unsystematic risk decreases while systematic risk remains. This concept connects to beta: in a well-diversified portfolio, beta becomes the dominant measure because unsystematic risk has been eliminated.
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