Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Characteristics of Equity Securities questions:
Forgetting common stockholders are last in liquidation
Confusing stock split effects on price vs value
Not understanding anti-dilution provisions
Sample Practice Questions
In the event of corporate liquidation, common stockholders have a claim on assets:
B is correct. Common stockholders have a residual claim on assets, meaning they are last in line during liquidation. The priority order is: secured creditors, unsecured creditors (including bondholders), preferred stockholders, and finally common stockholders. This is why common stock is considered the riskiest class of securities in a company's capital structure.
A (Before bondholders) is incorrect because bondholders are creditors and always have priority over equity holders. C (Equal to preferred) is incorrect because preferred stockholders have priority over common stockholders in both dividends and liquidation. D (Before all others) is incorrect because this completely reverses the correct priority order.
This directly addresses the #1 common mistake: "Forgetting common stockholders are last in liquidation." The Series 65 frequently tests liquidation priority in questions about investment risk, suitability, and security characteristics. Understanding this hierarchy helps you assess investment risk and explain to clients why common stock is riskier than bonds or preferred stock. The residual claim is the tradeoff for unlimited upside potential. This concept appears in comparative questions asking you to rank securities by risk or by claim priority.
A company announces a 2-for-1 stock split. An investor owns 100 shares purchased at $80 per share. After the split, the investor will own:
C is correct. In a 2-for-1 forward split, the investor receives twice as many shares (200), but the price per share is cut in half ($40). The total value remains unchanged at $8,000 (200 shares × $40 = $8,000, same as 100 shares × $80). The investor's cost basis per share also adjusts to $40.
A (100 shares at $40) is incorrect because it shows the price adjustment but forgets the investor receives more shares. B (200 shares at $80) is incorrect because while the share count doubles, the price must also adjust proportionally. This would incorrectly double the total value. D (50 shares at $160) is incorrect because this describes a reverse split (1-for-2), not the stated 2-for-1 forward split.
This addresses the common mistake: "Confusing stock split effects on price vs value." The Series 65 regularly tests whether candidates understand that splits change the number of shares and price per share, but NOT the total value of the position. Forward splits (2-for-1, 3-for-1) increase shares and decrease price, while reverse splits (1-for-10) decrease shares and increase price. Companies typically split shares to make them more affordable or to meet exchange listing requirements. Remember: splits are cosmetic changes that don't affect fundamental value or proportionate ownership.
To receive a cash dividend, an investor must purchase the stock no later than:
A is correct. To receive a dividend, an investor must purchase the stock before the ex-dividend date (or on the business day before the ex-dividend date) to settle by the record date. Due to T+1 settlement, buying before the ex-date ensures the investor is on the books as of the record date. The ex-dividend date is set one business day before the record date.
B (Declaration date) is incorrect because while purchasing before declaration would receive the dividend, it's not the latest possible date. This is overly restrictive. C (Record date) is incorrect because purchasing on the record date is too late. With T+1 settlement, the trade settles one business day later, missing the record date cutoff. D (Payment date) is incorrect because this is when the dividend is actually paid, weeks after eligibility has been determined.
Understanding the ex-dividend date is critical for the Series 65. The exam frequently tests the DERP mnemonic (Declaration, Ex-dividend, Record, Payment) and specifically when investors qualify for dividends. The key concept: buy BEFORE ex-date to GET the dividend; buy ON or AFTER ex-date, you do NOT get the dividend. The stock price typically drops by approximately the dividend amount on the ex-date. This appears in questions about dividend strategies, client timing decisions, and understanding why stock prices fluctuate around dividend dates.
Cumulative voting for corporate directors primarily benefits which group of shareholders?
B is correct. Cumulative voting allows shareholders to multiply their votes (shares owned × number of positions open) and allocate them freely, including concentrating all votes on a single candidate. This gives minority shareholders a better chance to elect at least one director by pooling their voting power. For example, with 100 shares and 5 director positions, a shareholder has 500 votes to allocate however they wish.
A (Institutional investors) is incorrect because large shareholders already have significant influence and benefit more from statutory voting where their size dominates. C (Preferred stockholders) is incorrect because preferred stockholders typically have no voting rights at all. D (Management and insiders) is incorrect because management typically prefers statutory voting, which favors majority shareholders and makes it harder for minority groups to gain board representation.
Cumulative voting appears on the Series 65 as part of shareholder rights coverage. Understanding how it differs from statutory voting (one vote per share per position) helps you answer questions about corporate governance and shareholder protections. The exam may present scenarios asking which voting method benefits minority shareholders or asking you to calculate voting power. Remember: cumulative voting levels the playing field by allowing vote concentration, while statutory voting favors majority shareholders. This concept connects to corporate governance questions and shareholder advocacy.
Preemptive rights give existing shareholders the right to:
C is correct. Preemptive rights (also called subscription rights) allow existing shareholders to purchase additional shares before they are offered to the public, enabling them to maintain their proportionate ownership percentage when the company issues new stock. This prevents dilution of their ownership stake and voting power.
A (Dividends before new shareholders) is incorrect because dividend priority is determined by stock class (preferred vs common), not preemptive rights. All shareholders of the same class receive dividends equally. B (Vote on major decisions) is incorrect because this describes general voting rights, not preemptive rights specifically. D (Sell back to company) is incorrect because this describes a put option or redemption feature, not preemptive rights.
Preemptive rights appear on the Series 65 in questions about shareholder rights and anti-dilution protections. Understanding this concept helps you answer questions about corporate actions and how existing shareholders are protected when companies raise additional capital. While not all companies offer preemptive rights, when they do exist, shareholders receive rights certificates that can be exercised (buy new shares) or sold in the market. This connects to questions about rights offerings, standby underwriting, and the difference between rights and warrants.
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Access Free BetaA company executes a 1-for-5 reverse stock split. The primary reason for this corporate action is most likely to:
D is correct. Reverse splits are typically done to increase the per-share price, often to meet minimum listing requirements (such as the NYSE or NASDAQ $1 minimum bid price). Companies facing delisting due to low share prices use reverse splits to boost the price. In a 1-for-5 reverse split, shareholders receive 1 share for every 5 shares owned, and the price increases proportionally.
A (Increase market value) is incorrect because reverse splits do not change total market capitalization. They only redistribute value across fewer shares. B (Make shares affordable) is incorrect because this is backwards. Reverse splits INCREASE the per-share price, making shares less affordable. Forward splits make shares more affordable. C (Reduce tax burden) is incorrect because stock splits (forward or reverse) are not taxable events and don't change the tax treatment of shareholdings.
Understanding reverse splits is essential for the Series 65. While forward splits are more common, reverse splits appear in questions about struggling companies and exchange listing requirements. The exam tests whether you know reverse splits reduce share count while increasing price per share, leaving total value unchanged. Companies trading below $1 per share often face delisting, making reverse splits a survival mechanism. This connects to understanding stock exchange rules, corporate actions, and the difference between fundamental value changes versus cosmetic price adjustments.
Anti-dilution provisions in convertible preferred stock protect investors from:
C is correct. Anti-dilution provisions adjust the conversion ratio to protect convertible preferred stockholders when the company issues additional common shares at prices below the conversion price. These provisions prevent the dilution of the preferred stockholder's potential common stock position by increasing the number of common shares they can convert into, maintaining their economic interest.
A (Interest rate increases) is incorrect because anti-dilution provisions address ownership dilution, not interest rate risk. Rising rates affect bond prices, not conversion ratios. B (Dividend reductions) is incorrect because anti-dilution provisions protect conversion ratios, not dividend payments. Preferred dividends are typically fixed or have separate protections. D (Management changes) is incorrect because anti-dilution provisions are financial protections related to share issuance, not corporate governance matters.
This directly addresses the common mistake: "Not understanding anti-dilution provisions." The Series 65 tests anti-dilution provisions in questions about convertible securities and shareholder protections. Understanding how these provisions work helps you answer questions about why convertible preferred stock may have lower dividend rates (the conversion feature is valuable) and how shareholders are protected from dilutive offerings. Common anti-dilution formulas include full ratchet and weighted average adjustments. This concept appears in questions comparing convertible securities and analyzing complex capital structures.
An investor purchased stock for $50 per share, received $2 in dividends during the year, and sold the stock for $55. What was the total return?
D is correct. Total return includes both capital appreciation and income. The formula is: (ending value - beginning value + dividends) ÷ beginning value. Calculation: ($55 - $50 + $2) ÷ $50 = $7 ÷ $50 = 0.14 or 14%. Total return captures the complete investment performance, including both price gains and dividend income.
A (10%) is incorrect because this calculates only the capital appreciation ($5 ÷ $50), ignoring the dividend income. B (4%) is incorrect because this calculates only the dividend yield ($2 ÷ $50), ignoring the $5 capital gain. C (7%) is incorrect because this appears to add the percentage gains (10% + 4%) but uses incorrect methodology. The correct approach uses the formula with dollar amounts, not adding separate percentages.
Total return calculations appear frequently on the Series 65. The exam tests whether you understand that investment returns come from two sources: capital appreciation (price change) and income (dividends or interest). Many questions try to trick candidates into calculating only one component. Always use the complete formula when asked for total return. This concept connects to performance measurement, comparing investment alternatives, and understanding how income-producing securities differ from growth-only investments. Total return is especially important when evaluating stocks that pay significant dividends.
Which of the following stock classifications would be MOST appropriate for a conservative investor seeking regular income during retirement?
A is correct. Income stocks are characterized by high dividend yields and stable cash flows, making them suitable for investors seeking regular income, such as retirees. These are typically established companies in mature industries that distribute most earnings as dividends rather than reinvesting for growth. Utilities and consumer staples often fall into this category.
B (Growth stocks) is incorrect because growth stocks typically reinvest earnings for expansion rather than paying dividends, making them unsuitable for income-focused retirees. C (Cyclical stocks) is incorrect because cyclical stocks fluctuate with economic conditions and often cut dividends during downturns, creating income uncertainty for retirees. D (Small-cap stocks) is incorrect because small-cap stocks typically have high volatility and low or no dividends, making them inappropriate for conservative retirees needing stable income.
Understanding stock classifications is critical for Series 65 suitability questions. The exam frequently tests whether you can match investment characteristics to client needs. Growth stocks suit long-term capital appreciation goals, while income stocks suit current income needs. Defensive stocks (utilities, healthcare) provide stability, while cyclical stocks (autos, housing) fluctuate with the economy. The exam may present client scenarios requiring you to identify appropriate stock types based on objectives, risk tolerance, and time horizon. This connects to portfolio construction and the fiduciary duty to recommend suitable investments.
Statutory voting differs from cumulative voting in that statutory voting:
B is correct. Statutory voting (also called straight voting) gives shareholders one vote per share for each director position. If there are 5 director positions and you own 100 shares, you cast 100 votes for each of the 5 positions separately. You cannot combine votes from different positions. This system favors majority shareholders.
A (Allocate votes freely) is incorrect because this describes cumulative voting, not statutory voting. Cumulative voting allows shareholders to multiply and allocate votes across candidates however they wish. B is the defining characteristic of statutory voting. C (Only preferred stockholders) is incorrect because voting rights apply to common stock, and preferred stockholders typically have no voting rights. D (Vote equally) is incorrect because shareholders can choose different candidates for each position, but they cannot concentrate votes from multiple positions onto one candidate.
The Series 65 tests the distinction between statutory and cumulative voting in corporate governance questions. Understanding this helps you answer questions about shareholder rights and which voting method favors different groups. Statutory voting makes it nearly impossible for minority shareholders to elect directors because majority shareholders dominate each individual election. Cumulative voting allows minority shareholders to pool their voting power by concentrating votes on one or two candidates. This appears in questions about corporate structure, shareholder protections, and governance mechanisms.
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