Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Ethical Practices questions:
Forgetting all material conflicts must be disclosed
Not understanding soft dollar arrangement requirements
Confusing best execution obligations
Sample Practice Questions
An investment adviser receives commissions from a broker-dealer when clients execute trades through that firm. Under ethical guidelines, the adviser must:
A is correct. All material conflicts of interest, including compensation arrangements with broker-dealers, must be disclosed to clients in writing before or at the time the advisory contract is signed. This allows clients to make informed decisions about the relationship. The disclosure must be clear and prominent, typically in Form ADV Part 2A.
B (Annual consent) is incorrect because while disclosure is required, obtaining separate written consent annually is not mandated for this type of arrangement. C (Below average commissions) is incorrect because the obligation is disclosure, not a specific commission level, though best execution still applies. D (Avoid entirely) is incorrect because conflicts can be managed through proper disclosure. Not all conflicts must be eliminated, but all material conflicts must be disclosed.
This tests the fundamental principle that material conflicts of interest must be disclosed. This concept appears on virtually every Series 65 exam and represents one of the most commonly missed topics. The exam frequently presents scenarios where advisers have various compensation arrangements and tests whether you understand that disclosure is the primary ethical obligation. Remember: conflicts don't always disqualify an arrangement, but they must always be disclosed. This principle extends to 12b-1 fees, soft dollars, principal transactions, and many other situations.
Which of the following describes a permissible soft dollar arrangement under Section 28(e) of the Securities Exchange Act?
B is correct. Soft dollar arrangements are permissible when client commissions are used to obtain research and brokerage services that benefit clients. Third-party research reports that help with investment decision-making qualify as legitimate research under Section 28(e). The research must provide lawful and appropriate assistance in the investment decision-making process.
A (Computer hardware) is incorrect because hardware is not considered research or brokerage services under Section 28(e). Only the research component of products (not hardware, furniture, or facilities) qualifies. C (Office rent) is incorrect because rent is a general business expense that benefits the adviser, not specifically research that benefits clients. D (Marketing salaries) is incorrect because marketing staff compensation is an overhead expense, not a research or brokerage service.
Soft dollar arrangements are heavily tested on the Series 65 because they represent a common compliance issue and potential conflict of interest. The exam wants you to understand that soft dollars can only be used for research and brokerage services that directly benefit clients, not for the adviser's general business expenses. This is frequently missed because candidates assume any professional service can be paid with soft dollars. Remember the rule: if it helps make investment decisions or execute trades, it might qualify. If it's general overhead (rent, salaries, equipment, marketing), it doesn't qualify. Always disclose soft dollar practices to clients.
An investment adviser has a duty of best execution when executing client transactions. This obligation means the adviser must seek to obtain the:
C is correct. Best execution is a holistic standard requiring advisers to seek the most favorable terms reasonably available, considering multiple factors including price, speed, likelihood of execution and settlement, size of order, nature of the market, and overall cost. It's not simply about finding the lowest commission. The focus is on the overall quality and value of the execution.
A (Lowest commission) is incorrect because best execution considers total cost and quality, not just commission rates. Sometimes paying a slightly higher commission results in better execution and lower overall costs. B (Fastest speed) is incorrect because speed is only one factor. Other considerations like price improvement and market impact matter. D (Highest volume) is incorrect because trading volume alone doesn't ensure best execution. The venue must provide the best overall terms for that particular transaction.
Best execution is one of the three common mistakes specifically called out for this subtopic, making it high-priority for exam preparation. The exam frequently tests whether candidates understand that best execution is not simply "cheapest execution." It's a comprehensive assessment of execution quality. Questions often present scenarios where an adviser uses a higher-commission broker but obtains better prices or superior service. Understanding this nuanced obligation is essential because it appears in both ethics questions and practical portfolio management scenarios. Best execution is an ongoing duty that must be reviewed periodically.
An investment adviser representative learns that a client plans to purchase shares of a thinly traded stock. If the IAR purchases shares of the same stock for his personal account immediately before entering the client's order, this practice is known as:
D is correct. Front-running (also called trading ahead) occurs when an adviser or representative trades for their own account based on knowledge of pending client orders, particularly when the client order is likely to move the market price. This is a prohibited practice because it allows the adviser to profit from information that belongs to the client, effectively putting personal interests ahead of client interests.
A (Dollar-cost averaging) is incorrect because that refers to a systematic investment strategy of making regular purchases regardless of price. B (Portfolio rebalancing) is incorrect because that involves adjusting portfolio allocations back to target weights, unrelated to trading ahead of clients. C (Tactical asset allocation) is incorrect because that refers to short-term strategy adjustments based on market conditions, not trading ahead of client orders.
Front-running is a serious ethical violation frequently tested on the Series 65. It represents a clear breach of fiduciary duty by placing personal interests ahead of client interests. The exam often presents subtle scenarios where an IAR's personal trading might coincide with client activity, testing whether you recognize the violation. This concept connects to other prohibited practices like scalping and to requirements for codes of ethics governing personal securities transactions. Advisory firms must have policies preventing employees from profiting at client expense. Even the appearance of front-running can violate fiduciary standards.
Which of the following must be disclosed to advisory clients under the Investment Advisers Act and fiduciary principles?
C is correct. Investment advisers have a fiduciary duty to disclose all material conflicts of interest that could affect the advisory relationship or investment advice. Materiality is determined by whether a reasonable client would want to know the information when deciding whether to enter into or continue the advisory relationship. This is a broad, principles-based obligation that goes beyond specific regulatory requirements.
A (Significant only) is incorrect because the standard is materiality to clients, not the adviser's own judgment of significance. B (Listed in regulations) is incorrect because the fiduciary duty to disclose conflicts extends beyond specifically enumerated items. It's a principles-based obligation. D ($10,000 threshold) is incorrect because there is no dollar threshold for disclosure. Even small conflicts must be disclosed if they could influence the advice given or the client's decision-making.
This question directly addresses the #1 common mistake for this subtopic: "Forgetting all material conflicts must be disclosed." This principle appears on nearly every exam and is fundamental to fiduciary duty. The exam frequently tests this with scenarios presenting various conflicts (compensation arrangements, affiliated entities, proprietary products, personal holdings) to see if you understand the broad disclosure obligation. Remember: when in doubt, disclose. The standard is materiality from the client's perspective, not just what the adviser thinks is important. Failure to disclose material conflicts can result in enforcement actions, contract rescission, and loss of fees.
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Access Free BetaAn investment adviser representative has engaged in excessive trading in a client's account primarily to generate commissions. This prohibited practice is called:
A is correct. Churning is the prohibited practice of excessive trading in a client's account for the primary purpose of generating commissions or fees rather than benefiting the client. To prove churning, three elements must be present: control over the account, excessive trading inconsistent with the client's objectives, and intent to defraud or willful disregard of the client's interests.
B (Market timing) is incorrect because market timing refers to attempting to predict market movements and adjust positions accordingly, which is a strategy (though often unsuccessful), not an ethical violation per se. C (Arbitrage) is incorrect because arbitrage involves simultaneously buying and selling securities to profit from price discrepancies, a legitimate trading strategy. D (Active management) is incorrect because active management involves frequent trading based on research and strategy, which is legitimate when serving client interests rather than generating fees.
Churning appears frequently on the Series 65 as a clear example of placing adviser interests ahead of client interests. The exam tests whether you can recognize churning by looking at trading patterns, account turnover rates, and whether activity aligns with client objectives. High turnover in a conservative retired client's account might indicate churning, while the same activity in an aggressive trader's account might be appropriate. Key red flags include high portfolio turnover ratios, significant commissions relative to account value, and trading inconsistent with stated objectives. This violation can occur in both commission-based and fee-based accounts.
Under the SEC's custody rule, an investment adviser is generally considered to have custody of client assets if the adviser:
B is correct. Custody is triggered when an adviser has authority to withdraw client funds or securities, physically holds client assets, or acts as trustee or has similar authority over client accounts. Having authorization to deduct fees directly from client accounts also creates custody. These arrangements require additional safeguards including surprise audits, qualified custodian relationships, and specific client notifications.
A (Advice only) is incorrect because providing advice without handling funds does not create custody. Most advisers provide advice without custody. C (Performance fees) is incorrect because performance-based compensation relates to fee structure, not custody. It has separate requirements but doesn't automatically trigger custody rules. D (Quarterly arrears) is incorrect because billing in arrears typically avoids the custody issue, though if the adviser can deduct fees directly from accounts, custody considerations apply.
Understanding custody triggers is essential for the Series 65 because custody creates significant compliance obligations and costs for advisers. The exam frequently tests scenarios to determine if custody exists, such as having check-signing authority, standing letters of authorization, or holding client securities. Custody requires using a qualified custodian, conducting surprise examinations by independent accountants, and sending quarterly account statements. Many small advisers structure their practices to avoid custody because of these requirements. This connects to fiduciary duty because custody creates additional opportunities for misuse of client assets.
An investment adviser wishes to use client testimonials in advertising materials. Under current SEC rules, which of the following is required?
B is correct. Under the SEC's Marketing Rule (adopted in 2020, effective 2021), testimonials are permitted in investment adviser advertising if certain conditions are met. The adviser must disclose that the testimonial was given by a current client, disclose any compensation paid for the testimonial, and have written policies reasonably designed to ensure testimonials are not misleading and address conflicts of interest.
A (Prohibited) is incorrect because the current Marketing Rule reversed the prior prohibition on testimonials. They are now allowed with appropriate safeguards. C (Institutional only) is incorrect because testimonials may come from retail or institutional clients, though additional disclosures apply when the person is a compensated promoter. D (FINRA approval) is incorrect because investment advisers are regulated by the SEC or states, not FINRA. FINRA regulates broker-dealers, not investment advisers.
The SEC's Marketing Rule represents a significant change in advertising standards and is heavily tested on recent Series 65 exams. Many candidates still think testimonials are completely prohibited because that was the rule for decades. Understanding the current framework is essential. The exam tests whether you know testimonials are now permitted with proper disclosures and policies. Related concepts include endorsements (which have their own requirements), performance advertising rules, and prohibition on making false or misleading statements. The key change is that the SEC moved from prescriptive rules to principles-based standards focused on whether advertising is misleading.
An investment adviser representative wants to recommend securities of a company in which he owns a significant personal stake. Under ethical standards, the IAR should:
B is correct. When an IAR has a personal financial interest in securities being recommended, this creates a material conflict of interest that must be disclosed to clients before or at the time of making the recommendation. The disclosure allows clients to evaluate whether the recommendation might be influenced by the IAR's personal interests. After disclosure, the recommendation can proceed if it's suitable and in the client's best interest.
A (Avoid entirely) is incorrect because disclosure and suitability analysis can allow the recommendation to proceed. The conflict doesn't automatically prohibit the recommendation. C (Outperformance requirement) is incorrect because while the security must be suitable, there's no specific performance threshold. The issue is disclosure, not performance. D (After recommendation) is incorrect because disclosure must occur before or at the time of recommendation, not afterward. Disclosing after-the-fact doesn't give clients the information they need to evaluate the advice.
Personal securities holdings and recommendations represent a frequently tested conflict of interest scenario. The exam wants to ensure you understand that IARs can recommend securities they own, but only with proper disclosure. This connects to code of ethics requirements, which typically require preclearance of personal trades and reporting of holdings. The principle here is transparency: clients deserve to know when their adviser might profit from a recommendation beyond the advisory fee. This also relates to front-running prohibitions. If the IAR buys first, then recommends, the sequence matters and could constitute a violation even with disclosure.
All of the following are elements that must typically be present to prove churning in a client account EXCEPT
C is correct. Account losses are not an element of churning. Churning can occur even in profitable accounts if trading is excessive and primarily intended to generate commissions. The three required elements are: (1) control over the account by the adviser/representative, (2) excessive trading inconsistent with the client's objectives (often measured by turnover ratio), and (3) intent to defraud or willful disregard of the client's interests.
A (Control), B (Excessive trading), and D (Intent) are all required elements. Control means the adviser makes trading decisions or has discretionary authority. Excessive trading is evaluated using turnover ratios, in-and-out trading patterns, and consistency with client objectives. Intent or scienter can be inferred from the pattern of conduct, such as repeatedly ignoring client objectives to generate commissions.
Understanding the elements of churning is critical for the Series 65 because the exam frequently presents scenarios requiring you to identify whether churning has occurred. The "EXCEPT" format makes this question trickier by requiring comprehensive knowledge of all elements. The key insight is that profitability is irrelevant to churning analysis. Even if an account makes money, excessive trading for commissions violates fiduciary duty. Supervisors must monitor for churning red flags including high turnover ratios (annual turnover of 6x or more is often excessive for most investors), frequent in-and-out trades, and activity inconsistent with client profiles. This appears in ethics questions, compliance scenarios, and supervisory responsibility questions.
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