Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Types of Fixed Income Securities questions:
Confusing GNMA (government guaranteed) with FNMA (not government guaranteed)
Forgetting municipal bond tax advantages
Mixing up GO bonds vs revenue bonds
Sample Practice Questions
Which of the following agency securities is backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government?
B is correct. GNMA (Ginnie Mae) securities are the only agency securities backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, giving them the same credit quality as Treasury securities. GNMA guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on its mortgage-backed securities.
A (FNMA/Fannie Mae) is incorrect because it is a government-sponsored enterprise (GSE) that is not backed by government guarantee. C (FHLMC/Freddie Mac) is incorrect for the same reason as FNMA. These agencies carry implicit but not explicit government backing. D (Federal Farm Credit Bank) is incorrect because it is also a GSE without full faith and credit backing.
This is one of the most frequently tested distinctions on the Series 65 exam. Candidates commonly confuse GNMA (which has government backing) with FNMA and FHLMC (which do not). Understanding this difference is crucial for assessing credit rating risk in client portfolios. GNMA securities offer Treasury-level safety but higher yields than Treasuries due to prepayment risk. Questions often present scenarios where safety is paramount, testing whether you know which agency securities have actual government guarantees versus those that are simply government-sponsored enterprises.
A municipal bond general obligation (GO) bond is primarily backed by:
A is correct. General obligation (GO) bonds are backed by the taxing power of the issuing municipality, including property taxes (ad valorem) for local governments and income or sales taxes for state governments. The issuer's ability to raise taxes to meet debt obligations makes GO bonds generally lower risk than revenue bonds.
B (Project revenue) is incorrect because this describes revenue bonds, not GO bonds. C (Federal government) is incorrect because municipal bonds are issued by state and local governments, not backed by federal guarantee. D (Specific collateral) is incorrect because GO bonds are backed by taxing authority rather than pledged assets.
The distinction between GO bonds and revenue bonds appears on virtually every Series 65 exam. GO bonds typically have lower yields than revenue bonds from the same issuer because taxing power provides stronger security than project revenue. Understanding this difference helps you assess municipal bond risk and answer suitability questions. The exam often presents scenarios asking which type of municipal bond is safer or requires voter approval. Remember: GO bonds need voter approval and are subject to debt limits, while revenue bonds do not require voter approval.
Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) offer investors protection from inflation by:
B is correct. TIPS provide inflation protection by adjusting the principal value based on changes in the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The coupon rate remains fixed, but it is applied to the inflation-adjusted principal, resulting in higher interest payments when inflation rises. At maturity, investors receive the greater of the adjusted principal or the original principal amount.
A (Adjusting coupon rate) is incorrect because TIPS maintain a fixed coupon rate. The inflation adjustment is made to the principal, not the rate. C (Tax-exempt interest) is incorrect because TIPS interest is subject to federal taxation, and investors must also pay taxes on the principal adjustment each year even though they don't receive that amount until maturity. D (Minimum 3% real return) is incorrect because TIPS do not guarantee any specific real return level.
TIPS appear regularly on the exam, particularly in questions about inflation hedging strategies. Understanding how TIPS work is essential for recommending appropriate securities to clients concerned about purchasing power erosion. The exam may test whether you know that TIPS have lower nominal yields than regular Treasuries because the inflation premium is built into the principal adjustment mechanism. Also important: TIPS create "phantom income" tax liability on the annual principal adjustments, which can make them unsuitable for taxable accounts but ideal for tax-deferred retirement accounts.
Which type of corporate bond has the lowest priority claim on assets in the event of bankruptcy?
D is correct. Subordinated debentures have the lowest priority among the choices listed. In bankruptcy, they are paid only after all senior debt, including regular debentures and secured bonds, has been satisfied. This higher risk typically results in higher yields to compensate investors.
A (Mortgage bonds) and B (Collateral trust bonds) are incorrect because both are secured bonds with claims on specific collateral, giving them higher priority than unsecured debt. C (Debentures) are incorrect because while they are unsecured, they are senior to subordinated debentures and get paid before subordinated debt in bankruptcy.
Understanding the priority of claims in bankruptcy is crucial for credit rating risk assessment and appears regularly on Series 65 questions about bond characteristics. The hierarchy goes: secured debt (mortgage bonds, collateral trust bonds, equipment trust certificates), then senior unsecured debt (debentures), then subordinated debt, and finally equity holders. Questions often present bankruptcy scenarios or ask which bondholders face the greatest credit risk. Remember that subordinated means junior, which means paid after senior creditors, which means higher risk and higher yield.
A client in the 32% federal tax bracket is considering municipal bonds. If a municipal bond yields 4.2%, what is the tax-equivalent yield?
A is correct. The tax-equivalent yield is calculated using the formula: municipal yield รท (1 - tax bracket) = 4.2% รท (1 - 0.32) = 4.2% รท 0.68 = 6.18%. This means a taxable bond would need to yield 6.18% to provide the same after-tax return as the 4.2% tax-exempt municipal bond for someone in the 32% bracket.
B (5.47%) is incorrect because it uses an incorrect calculation. C (2.86%) is incorrect because it represents the after-tax yield of a 4.2% taxable bond, which is the reverse of what the question asks. D (4.20%) is incorrect because it's simply the municipal yield without any tax adjustment.
Tax-equivalent yield calculations appear frequently on the Series 65, particularly in suitability questions comparing municipal bonds to taxable alternatives. This concept is fundamental for determining whether municipal bonds are appropriate for clients in different tax brackets. The exam may present scenarios with clients in various tax brackets and ask which investment provides better after-tax returns. Remember: higher tax brackets make municipal bonds more attractive. Clients in low tax brackets (15% or below) usually benefit more from taxable bonds with higher yields, while high-bracket clients (32% or higher) typically benefit from municipals.
Master Investment Vehicles: 25% of Your Exam
Investment products make up the largest section of the Series 65. CertFuel targets the specific distinctions between bonds, stocks, funds, and alternatives that appear most often.
Access Free BetaA municipal revenue bond is being issued to finance a new toll road. The bond will be repaid from:
B is correct. Revenue bonds are backed by the revenue generated from the specific project being financed. In this case, tolls collected from drivers using the road would provide the income stream to pay bondholders. The creditworthiness of the bond depends on the project's ability to generate sufficient revenue.
A (Property taxes) is incorrect because property taxes back general obligation bonds, not revenue bonds. C (General taxing authority) is incorrect for the same reason. This describes GO bonds rather than revenue bonds. D (Federal highway funding) is incorrect because revenue bonds are repaid from project-specific revenue, not government appropriations or external funding sources.
Understanding revenue bond backing is essential for municipal bond analysis and appears regularly on the Series 65. Revenue bonds represent about 65% of outstanding municipal bonds and are riskier than GO bonds because they depend on project success rather than taxing power. The exam often tests whether you understand that revenue bonds need feasibility studies (not voter approval), have no debt limits, and may include rate covenants requiring the issuer to maintain rates sufficient for debt service. Common revenue bond projects include toll roads, airports, hospitals, utilities, and water/sewer systems.
Which of the following statements about Treasury STRIPS is correct?
B is correct. Treasury STRIPS are zero-coupon bond securities created by separating the principal and interest payments of Treasury bonds. Although they pay no interest until maturity, investors must pay federal income tax annually on the imputed or "phantom" interest that accrues. This makes them most suitable for tax-deferred accounts like IRAs.
A (Semiannual interest) is incorrect because STRIPS pay no current interest. They are sold at a deep discount and mature at face value. C (Lowest duration) is incorrect because STRIPS actually have the highest duration of Treasury securities since all cash flows occur at maturity, making them extremely price-sensitive to interest rate risk changes. D (Callable) is incorrect because STRIPS are not callable, eliminating reinvestment risk from call provisions.
STRIPS appear regularly on Series 65 exams, particularly in questions about tax consequences and interest rate risk. The "phantom income" tax issue is frequently tested because many candidates don't realize that zero-coupon bonds create annual tax liability despite paying no current income. This makes STRIPS ideal for Roth IRAs and other tax-deferred accounts but potentially problematic in taxable accounts. Questions often ask which securities are most price-sensitive to interest rate changes (answer: long-term STRIPS) or which have no reinvestment risk (STRIPS have no coupons to reinvest). Understanding STRIPS helps you answer duration and tax planning questions.
All of the following are characteristics of mortgage-backed securities issued by GNMA EXCEPT
D is correct. GNMA securities are fully taxable at the federal, state, and local levels. Unlike Treasury securities (which are state tax-exempt) or municipal bonds (which are typically federal tax-exempt), GNMA securities offer no tax advantages despite having government backing.
A (Monthly cash flow) is correct and therefore not the exception. GNMA securities make monthly payments, unlike most bonds which pay semiannually. B (Pass-through) is correct. GNMA issues pass-through certificates that distribute mortgage payments from homeowners to investors. C (Prepayment risk) is correct. When interest rates fall, homeowners refinance their mortgages, causing early principal return to investors who must then reinvest at lower rates.
This negative stem question tests comprehensive knowledge of GNMA characteristics. The exam frequently uses "EXCEPT" format to ensure you understand all aspects of a security, not just one feature. GNMA securities are unique in offering government backing while being fully taxable, making them suitable for investors seeking safety with higher yields than Treasuries. Understanding prepayment risk is crucial because it represents the primary risk in mortgage-backed securities. When rates fall, prepayments accelerate and investors face reinvestment risk. When rates rise, prepayments slow (extension risk) and investors are locked into below-market yields longer than expected.
A corporate bond that is secured by real estate owned by the issuing corporation is known as:
C is correct. A mortgage bond is a secured bond backed by real estate owned by the corporation. If the issuer defaults, bondholders have a claim on the specified real property, providing greater security than unsecured bonds and typically resulting in lower yields.
A (Debenture) is incorrect because debentures are unsecured bonds backed only by the general creditworthiness of the issuer, not by specific collateral. B (Equipment trust certificate) is incorrect because these are secured by equipment, typically used by transportation companies for rolling stock (trains, trucks, planes), not real estate. D (Subordinated debenture) is incorrect because these are unsecured bonds with even lower priority than regular debentures.
Understanding the different types of corporate bonds and their backing is fundamental for credit risk assessment and appears on most Series 65 exams. The exam often tests whether you can match bond types with their collateral. Secured bonds (mortgage bonds, equipment trust certificates, collateral trust bonds) offer better protection in bankruptcy than unsecured bonds (debentures, subordinated debentures), resulting in lower yields for comparable maturity and credit quality. Questions may present scenarios asking which bond type would be safest for a conservative investor or which would offer the highest yield from the same issuer.
Which of the following best describes the primary difference between Treasury notes and Treasury bonds?
C is correct. The primary distinction between Treasury notes and Treasury bonds is maturity length. Treasury notes have original maturities ranging from 2 to 10 years, while Treasury bonds have original maturities exceeding 10 years (typically 20 or 30 years). Both pay semiannual interest and are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
A (Interest payment frequency) is incorrect because both notes and bonds pay interest semiannually, not at different frequencies. B (State taxation) is incorrect because both notes and bonds are exempt from state and local taxes while being subject to federal taxation. D (Callable) is incorrect because neither Treasury notes nor bonds issued in recent decades are callable. The Treasury stopped issuing callable bonds in the 1980s.
Treasury securities classification appears regularly on the Series 65, and maturity is the key distinguishing feature. Understanding the maturity ranges helps you answer questions about duration risk, yield curve analysis, and portfolio construction. Remember: Treasury bills mature in one year or less (sold at discount, pay no periodic interest), Treasury notes mature in 2-10 years, and Treasury bonds mature beyond 10 years. Longer maturity means higher duration and greater price sensitivity to interest rate changes. Questions often test whether you understand that all Treasuries are state tax-exempt and backed by full faith and credit, with maturity being the primary difference affecting risk and return characteristics.
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