Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Trading Securities questions:
Confusing stop-loss vs stop-limit orders
Forgetting margin maintenance requirements (25%)
Not understanding T+1 settlement for most securities
Sample Practice Questions
A client places a market order to buy 100 shares of XYZ stock. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this order?
B is correct. A market order guarantees immediate execution at the best available price but provides no price certainty. The actual execution price may differ from the last quoted price, especially in fast-moving or illiquid markets.
A (guarantees current quoted price) is incorrect because market orders guarantee execution, not price. C (only executes at $50 or less) describes a limit order, which specifies a maximum purchase price. D (expires at end of day) confuses order type with time qualifiers. Market orders typically execute immediately, though they can be designated as day or GTC (Good Till Canceled) orders.
Understanding market orders is fundamental for the Series 65 exam and practical client scenarios. Market orders are the simplest order type and most commonly used when execution speed is more important than price. The exam often contrasts market orders with limit orders to test your understanding of the trade-off between execution certainty and price certainty. Remember: market orders prioritize speed, limit orders prioritize price.
An investor wants to buy shares of ABC stock but only if the price does not exceed $45 per share. Which order type should the investor use?
A is correct. A limit order allows the investor to specify the maximum price they are willing to pay (for a buy) or the minimum price they will accept (for a sell). In this case, a buy limit order at $45 ensures the investor pays $45 per share or less, providing price certainty.
B (market order) is incorrect because market orders execute at the best available price without price guarantees. C (stop order) becomes a market order when triggered and is typically used to limit losses or enter positions. D (stop-limit order) combines stop and limit features but is more complex than needed here. The investor simply wants a maximum purchase price, making a basic limit order the appropriate choice.
Limit orders appear frequently on the Series 65 exam and in real client scenarios. They give clients control over execution price, which is especially important for investors buying or selling less liquid securities where bid-ask spreads can be wide. The exam often tests limit orders alongside market orders to ensure you understand when each is appropriate. Remember: limit orders guarantee price at or better, but may never execute if the market doesn't reach the specified price.
A client owns shares of DEF stock currently trading at $60 and wants to protect against a significant decline. The client places a stop order at $55. What happens when DEF trades at $54.50?
A is correct. A stop order (also called a stop-loss order) becomes a market order once the stop price is reached or passed. When DEF trades at $54.50, it triggers the $55 stop, converting it to a market order that executes immediately at the best available price, which might be $54.50 or another price depending on market conditions.
B (becomes a limit order) describes a stop-limit order, not a stop order. C (executes at exactly $55) is incorrect because stop orders provide no price guarantee after being triggered. They become market orders subject to the current market price. D (order cancels) is wrong because stop orders activate and execute when triggered, they do not cancel.
Stop orders are heavily tested on the Series 65 because they are commonly confused with stop-limit orders. This is specifically listed as a common mistake in the exam content outline. Understanding that stop orders become market orders (with execution certainty but no price certainty) is critical. Clients often use stop orders to limit losses on long positions or protect profits, but they need to understand the risk of execution at prices worse than the stop price in rapidly declining markets.
What is the key difference between a stop order and a stop-limit order?
B is correct. The fundamental difference is what happens after the order is triggered. A stop order becomes a market order (guaranteeing execution but not price), while a stop-limit order becomes a limit order (guaranteeing price or better but not execution).
A (stop for buying, stop-limit for selling) is incorrect because both order types can be used for buying or selling. C (different expiration rules) is wrong because both order types can be designated as day orders or GTC orders independently of their type. D (stop executes immediately, stop-limit requires approval) confuses the order types with execution mechanics. Stop orders execute immediately as market orders once triggered, while stop-limit orders may or may not execute depending on whether the limit price can be met.
This distinction between stop and stop-limit orders is explicitly listed as a common mistake on the Series 65 exam. The exam frequently tests this concept because it represents a practical trade-off clients face: stop orders guarantee you get out of (or into) a position but at an uncertain price, while stop-limit orders guarantee your price but may leave you stuck in (or out of) a position. Understanding this trade-off helps advisers make appropriate recommendations based on client priorities.
Under Regulation T, what is the initial margin requirement for purchasing most equity securities in a margin account?
D is correct. Regulation T, established by the Federal Reserve, sets the initial margin requirement at 50% for most equity purchases. This means investors must deposit at least 50% of the purchase price in cash, and can borrow the remaining 50% from the broker-dealer.
A (25%) confuses initial margin with maintenance margin. The 25% figure is the FINRA minimum maintenance requirement for long positions. B (30%) is the maintenance margin requirement for short positions, not the initial margin. C (100%) would represent a cash account transaction with no margin borrowing.
Regulation T's 50% initial margin requirement is one of the most frequently tested numbers on the Series 65 exam. You must distinguish between initial margin (Reg T at 50%) and maintenance margin (FINRA minimum at 25% for long, 30% for short). The exam often presents scenarios where you need to calculate whether a margin call will occur, requiring you to know both figures. This concept also appears in questions about leverage, risk disclosure, and suitability of margin trading for different client types.
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Access Free BetaA client has a long margin account with $40,000 in securities and a debit balance of $20,000. At what market value would the client receive a maintenance margin call?
D is correct. The maintenance margin requirement for long positions is 25% of current market value. Using the formula: Market Value = Debit Balance รท (1 - Maintenance %), we get $20,000 รท 0.75 = $26,667. When the market value falls to $26,667, equity would be exactly 25% ($6,667 equity รท $26,667 market value), triggering a margin call.
A ($30,000) represents where equity would be 33%, which is above the 25% maintenance requirement and would not trigger a call. B ($20,000) might tempt test-takers who forget that equity must be 25% of market value, not just equal to the debit. C ($10,000) is too low and represents a misunderstanding of the calculation.
Maintenance margin calculations appear regularly on the Series 65 exam, testing both conceptual understanding and basic math skills. The 25% maintenance requirement for long positions is explicitly mentioned in the exam content outline as a key concept candidates often forget. Being able to calculate margin call levels is essential for advising clients who use margin, as it helps them understand the risks and prepare for potential margin calls. Remember: maintenance margin (25%) is different from initial margin (50%).
An investor wants to short 200 shares of XYZ stock currently trading at $80 per share. What is the initial margin requirement for this transaction under Regulation T?
A is correct. The initial margin requirement for short sales is 50% under Regulation T, calculated as 50% of the market value of the shorted securities. For 200 shares at $80, the total value is $16,000, and 50% of that is $8,000. The investor must deposit $8,000 in addition to the $16,000 proceeds from the short sale.
B ($4,800) is 30%, which is the maintenance margin for short positions, not the initial requirement. C ($4,000) is 25%, which confuses maintenance margin for long positions with initial margin. D ($16,000) is 100% of the transaction value, which would be the initial margin if Reg T required matching the full value, but the actual requirement is 50%.
Short selling is a critical Series 65 topic because it involves significant risks, including unlimited loss potential. Understanding that the initial margin for shorts is the same 50% as for long positions (per Reg T) is important, but you must also know that maintenance margin differs (30% for shorts vs 25% for longs). The exam tests whether candidates understand the mechanics and risks of short selling, as advisers must carefully assess suitability before recommending short positions. Remember: short sellers must also pay any dividends to the lender.
A client sells shares of a stock on Monday. Under current settlement rules, when will the transaction settle?
C is correct. As of May 2024, most securities including stocks, bonds, ETFs, and mutual funds settle on T+1 (trade date plus one business day). A transaction executed on Monday settles on Tuesday.
A (T+0 or same-day settlement) applies only to options, not stocks. B (T+3) was the standard for equity trades prior to 2017 and is no longer used for most securities. D (T+2) was the previous settlement cycle for stocks before the change to T+1 in May 2024, though it still applies to municipal bonds.
Settlement periods are frequently tested on the Series 65 exam, and the T+1 standard for most securities is a relatively recent change that candidates must know. Understanding settlement is crucial for several reasons: it affects when clients must deliver payment or securities, impacts margin interest charges, and determines when dividends are credited. The exam often asks about settlement in the context of retirement account rollovers, which have strict 60-day windows, or in scenarios involving trade errors or disputes.
Which of the following represents the PRIMARY disadvantage of using a market order to sell a large block of thinly traded stock?
C is correct. The primary risk of market orders, especially for large blocks of thinly traded (illiquid) securities, is significant slippage. The investor may receive an execution price substantially worse than the last quoted price because there may not be sufficient liquidity at current price levels to absorb the entire order.
A (may not execute same day) is incorrect because market orders typically execute immediately at the best available price, even if that price is unfavorable. B (converts to limit order) is wrong as market orders remain market orders and do not convert. D (broker may reject) is unlikely since brokers generally accept market orders, though they may warn clients about potential price impact for large orders in illiquid stocks.
This question addresses real-world trading considerations that appear on the Series 65 exam in suitability and best execution contexts. Understanding market impact and slippage is essential when advising clients, particularly those trading large positions or illiquid securities. The exam tests whether advisers recognize when a limit order might be more appropriate than a market order to protect clients from adverse price movements. This concept connects to fiduciary duty and the obligation to seek best execution for client trades.
A client places a Good Till Canceled (GTC) order to buy shares at a specified limit price. Which of the following statements about this order is correct?
B is correct. A Good Till Canceled (GTC) order remains active until it is either filled or explicitly canceled by the client (or until the broker's maximum time limit is reached, often 90 days to 6 months depending on firm policy). Unlike day orders that expire at the end of the trading day, GTC orders provide flexibility for investors willing to wait for their price.
A (expires in 30 days) is incorrect because while some brokers may impose time limits on GTC orders (typically 90 days or longer), there is no standard 30-day rule. C (converts to market order) is wrong as GTC is a time qualifier, not an order type, and does not change the order type. D (only with market orders) is backwards since GTC orders are most commonly used with limit orders, not market orders, which typically execute immediately.
Understanding time qualifiers like GTC versus day orders is tested on the Series 65 exam and is important for practical client service. GTC orders are particularly useful for clients trying to buy or sell at specific prices in volatile or illiquid markets where execution might take time. However, advisers should warn clients about the risks of GTC orders, including the possibility of forgotten orders executing weeks or months later under changed circumstances. The exam may test scenarios where a client's financial situation changes but a GTC order is still active.
Key Terms to Know
Market Order
An order to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price. Execution is virtually guaranteed, b...
Limit Order
An order to buy or sell a security at a specified price or better. Buy limit orders execute at the limit price or lower;...
Stop Order
An order that becomes a market order once a specified stop price is reached. Buy stop orders are placed above the curren...
Margin Account
A brokerage account that allows investors to borrow money from their broker-dealer to purchase securities, with the purc...
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