Custody Rule
Custody Rule
Rule 206(4)-2 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 and corresponding state regulations governing investment advisers who have custody or possession of client funds or securities. Custody includes direct possession, any authority to withdraw funds/securities, or acting as trustee or with power of attorney. Advisers with custody must use qualified custodians, provide account statements at least quarterly, and undergo annual surprise examinations by an independent public accountant.
An investment adviser that has authority to automatically deduct advisory fees directly from client accounts has custody and must file Form ADV Part 1A Item 9, use a qualified custodian (bank, broker-dealer, or registered transfer agent), and arrange for an annual surprise examination. The custodian sends quarterly statements directly to clients.
Students often confuse custody (physical or constructive possession of client assets) with discretion (authority to make investment decisions). Having discretion does NOT trigger custody requirements. Also commonly confused: the surprise exam requirement applies to advisers with actual custody, but NOT to advisers who only deduct fees with written client authorization.
How This Is Tested
- Identifying situations where an adviser has custody of client assets
- Understanding when surprise examination requirement applies vs exceptions
- Distinguishing between custody and discretionary authority
- Recognizing qualified custodian requirements and who qualifies
- Knowing quarterly account statement delivery requirements and who sends them
Regulatory Limits
| Description | Limit | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Quarterly account statements | At least every 3 months | Sent by qualified custodian directly to clients (or delivered by adviser if custody is solely for deducting fees) |
| Surprise examination frequency | Annually | By independent public accountant, required for advisers with actual custody (not required if custody is solely for fee deduction with client authorization) |
| Form ADV custody disclosure | Item 9 of Part 1A | Must disclose custody arrangements and qualified custodian information |
| Qualified custodian definition | Bank, broker-dealer, FCM, or registered transfer agent | Must maintain client assets in separate accounts under client names |
Example Exam Questions
Test your understanding with these practice questions. Select an answer to see the explanation.
Thomas, an investment adviser, manages discretionary accounts for 45 clients. He has written authorization from each client to deduct his quarterly advisory fees directly from their accounts at Charles Schwab (the custodian). Thomas does not have check-writing authority or any other access to client funds. Under the SEC Custody Rule, which of the following requirements applies to Thomas?
B is correct. When an adviser's only custody is the authority to deduct fees directly from client accounts, and the adviser has written client authorization, the adviser has custody and must disclose it on Form ADV Part 1A Item 9. However, this limited custody for fee deduction does NOT trigger the surprise examination requirement.
A is incorrect because the annual surprise exam requirement applies only to advisers with actual custody beyond mere fee deduction authority. The SEC created this exception to avoid unnecessarily burdening advisers whose only "custody" is standard fee deduction. C is incorrect because the authority to deduct fees from client accounts IS a form of custody under the rule, even though Thomas doesn't have physical possession. The custody rule defines custody broadly to include any capacity to access client funds. D is incorrect because while some states require minimum net worth for advisers with custody ($35,000 is common), the surprise examination requirement is the primary federal custody rule obligation, and this question asks specifically about SEC Custody Rule requirements.
The Series 65 exam frequently tests the distinction between different types of custody and when the surprise examination requirement applies. Understanding that fee deduction authority creates custody but has an exception from the surprise exam is critical. This is one of the most commonly tested custody scenarios because it affects most registered investment advisers who charge asset-based fees.
Under SEC and state custody rules, which of the following is considered a "qualified custodian" for holding client assets?
B is correct. The SEC Custody Rule defines qualified custodians as: (1) banks or savings associations, (2) registered broker-dealers, (3) futures commission merchants (FCMs), (4) certain foreign financial institutions, and (5) registered transfer agents. These entities must maintain client assets in separate accounts under the client's name.
A is incorrect because investment advisers themselves do NOT qualify as custodians for their own clients' assets. that would defeat the purpose of the custody rule's protective safeguards. C is incorrect because while FDIC insurance is a feature of many qualified custodians (banks), not all FDIC-insured institutions qualify, and broker-dealers (which can be qualified custodians) are covered by SIPC, not FDIC. D is incorrect because advisers with custody must use an independent qualified custodian; they cannot serve as their own custodian even with adequate net worth.
The Series 65 exam regularly tests knowledge of who qualifies as a custodian because it's fundamental to understanding the custody rule's investor protection mechanisms. The rule requires independent, regulated entities to hold client assets, preventing advisers from serving as custodians for their own clients and reducing fraud risk.
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Access Free BetaGreenfield Advisers has custody of client assets for 12 clients with a total value of $8.4 million. Under the custody rule, how frequently must clients receive account statements, and who must send them?
C is correct. The custody rule requires that clients receive account statements at least quarterly (every 3 months). These statements must be sent by the qualified custodian directly to clients, not by the adviser. This ensures independent verification of account holdings and transactions.
A is incorrect because monthly statements are not required (though they exceed the minimum), and the adviser cannot send the required custody statements. they must come from the independent qualified custodian. B is incorrect because while quarterly is the correct frequency, the statements must be sent by the qualified custodian, not the adviser. Allowing the adviser to send the statements would undermine the custody rule's purpose of independent oversight. D is incorrect because quarterly (at least every 3 months) is required, not annually. Annual statements would not provide sufficient investor protection or timely detection of discrepancies.
The Series 65 exam tests quarterly statement requirements because this is a core investor protection under the custody rule. Understanding that the qualified custodian (not the adviser) sends statements directly to clients demonstrates the rule's emphasis on independent verification and fraud prevention. This prevents advisers from concealing unauthorized transactions or misappropriation.
All of the following situations would give an investment adviser "custody" of client assets under SEC rules EXCEPT
A is correct (the EXCEPT answer). Discretionary authority. the power to make investment decisions (buy/sell securities) without prior client approval for each transaction. does NOT constitute custody. Discretion and custody are separate concepts. Having discretion means you can make trading decisions; having custody means you can access, possess, or control client assets.
B creates custody: Serving as trustee gives the adviser control over trust assets and is explicitly defined as custody. Trustees have legal authority to manage and distribute trust assets, which gives them possession and control. C creates custody: Power of attorney that authorizes withdrawal of funds or securities constitutes custody because the adviser has the ability to move client assets. D creates custody: Authority to directly deduct fees from client accounts is a form of custody (though it qualifies for an exception from the surprise examination requirement if properly authorized in writing).
The Series 65 exam tests the critical distinction between discretionary authority and custody because candidates frequently confuse these two concepts. Understanding that discretion (trading authority) is NOT custody is essential. many advisers have discretion without having custody. This question type appears regularly because confusing discretion with custody is one of the most common mistakes on the exam.
Summit Investment Advisers has custody of client assets because the firm serves as trustee for several client trust accounts. The firm uses Fidelity (a qualified custodian) to hold all client assets. Which of the following compliance requirements apply to Summit under the custody rule?
1. Arrange for an annual surprise examination by an independent public accountant
2. Ensure clients receive account statements at least quarterly from Fidelity
3. Disclose custody arrangements on Form ADV Part 1A Item 9
4. Maintain a minimum net worth of $100,000
B is correct. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all accurate custody rule requirements.
Statement 1 is TRUE: Advisers with custody must arrange for an annual surprise examination by an independent public accountant. Since Summit serves as trustee (actual custody beyond mere fee deduction), the surprise exam requirement applies. The accountant verifies that client assets match records.
Statement 2 is TRUE: Clients must receive account statements at least quarterly, and these must be sent by the qualified custodian (Fidelity) directly to clients. This provides independent verification of account holdings and protects against fraud.
Statement 3 is TRUE: Advisers with custody must disclose this on Form ADV Part 1A Item 9, including information about the qualified custodian and custody arrangements. This disclosure alerts regulators to conduct appropriate oversight.
Statement 4 is FALSE: While some states require minimum net worth for advisers with custody (commonly $35,000), the federal SEC custody rule does NOT impose a minimum net worth requirement of $100,000. The $100,000 figure is sometimes associated with state bonding requirements, but it's not a universal custody rule requirement. The surprise examination, qualified custodian use, and Form ADV disclosure are the core federal requirements.
The Series 65 exam tests multi-layered custody rule compliance requirements to ensure you understand all the obligations that apply when an adviser has custody. Serving as trustee is a clear custody situation that triggers the full range of requirements: surprise exam, quarterly statements from the custodian, and Form ADV disclosure. Understanding these requirements together demonstrates comprehensive knowledge of the custody rule's investor protection mechanisms.
💡 Memory Aid
Think of custody like babysitting client money: You need a credentialed babysitter (qualified custodian = bank/broker-dealer), parents get quarterly report cards (statements every 3 months), and surprise sitter checks (annual CPA exam). Key: If you can touch it or access it, you have custody. Just deciding what to buy (discretion)? That's advice, not custody.
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This term is tested in the following Series 65 exam topics:
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