Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Capital Market Theory questions:
Confusing the three forms of EMH (weak, semi-strong, strong)
Forgetting CAPM only prices systematic risk
Misunderstanding efficient frontier implications
Sample Practice Questions
According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which type of risk is compensated with higher expected returns?
C is correct. CAPM states that only systematic risk (market risk) is rewarded with higher expected returns. This is because systematic risk cannot be diversified away and affects all securities in the market. Investors receive compensation only for risk they cannot eliminate through diversification.
A (Business risk), B (Credit risk), and D (Liquidity risk) are all forms of unsystematic (company-specific) risk that can be reduced through diversification. According to CAPM, investors receive no risk premium for holding diversifiable risks because they can eliminate these risks by building a well-diversified portfolio.
This is the foundational principle of CAPM and a high-frequency exam topic. Understanding that CAPM only prices systematic risk helps you evaluate whether securities are fairly valued and explains why diversification is critical. The exam often presents scenarios asking which risks deserve compensation or why diversified investors don't receive premiums for company-specific risks. This concept connects directly to beta, which measures systematic risk exposure.
A stock has a beta of 1.5. If the risk-free rate is 3% and the expected market return is 10%, what is the expected return according to CAPM?
B is correct. Using the CAPM formula: Expected Return = Rf + β(Rm - Rf) = 3% + 1.5(10% - 3%) = 3% + 1.5(7%) = 3% + 10.5% = 13.5%. The equity risk premium is 7% (market return minus risk-free rate), and the stock's beta of 1.5 means it captures 1.5 times that premium.
A (10.5%) incorrectly adds only the equity risk premium adjustment without the risk-free rate. C (15.0%) incorrectly multiplies the beta by the market return instead of the equity risk premium. D (18.0%) incorrectly multiplies beta by the market return and then adds the risk-free rate.
CAPM calculations appear frequently on the Series 65 exam. Understanding the formula helps you determine required returns for securities and evaluate whether investments offer adequate compensation for their risk level. Remember the structure: start with the risk-free rate, then add the market risk premium adjusted by beta. This question type tests both formula knowledge and arithmetic accuracy, so practice the calculation steps until they become automatic.
Under the weak form of the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH), which of the following would NOT be effective in achieving superior returns?
A is correct. The weak form of EMH states that all past price information is already reflected in current prices, making technical analysis (chart patterns, historical prices) ineffective. If weak form efficiency holds, you cannot beat the market by studying historical trading data.
B (Quarterly earnings reports), C (Meeting with management), and D (SEC filings) all represent fundamental analysis using public information. These strategies could potentially be effective under weak form EMH because weak form only claims past prices are reflected in current prices, not all public information. However, these methods would be ineffective under semi-strong form EMH, which incorporates all public information.
The three forms of EMH are among the most commonly tested and confused concepts on the Series 65. The exam frequently asks you to identify which analysis method would fail under each form. Remember the progression: weak form defeats technical analysis, semi-strong defeats fundamental analysis, and strong form defeats everything including insider information. This concept directly impacts the active versus passive management debate and helps you understand when active strategies might add value.
Which of the following statements about Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) is correct?
B is correct. The efficient frontier shows the set of optimal portfolios offering the highest expected return for each level of risk (or equivalently, the lowest risk for each level of return). These portfolios represent the best risk-return combinations available.
A is incorrect because diversification can only eliminate unsystematic (company-specific) risk, not systematic (market) risk. MPT explicitly recognizes that market risk remains even in fully diversified portfolios. C is incorrect because correlation is critical to diversification benefits. Lower correlation provides greater risk reduction. D is incorrect because adding highly correlated securities provides minimal risk reduction. The diversification benefit diminishes as you add securities beyond approximately 30 to 40 holdings.
Understanding MPT's efficient frontier is essential for portfolio construction questions on the exam. The exam often tests whether you know the limits of diversification and the role of correlation. Harry Markowitz won the Nobel Prize for this work in 1990, and the theory underpins modern investment management. Questions frequently ask about optimal portfolio selection, the impact of adding securities with different correlations, or why investors should choose portfolios on the efficient frontier rather than below it.
A security is plotted above the Security Market Line (SML). This indicates the security is:
B is correct. When a security plots above the SML, it means the security is offering a higher expected return than CAPM predicts for its level of systematic risk (beta). This indicates the security is undervalued because investors are receiving more return than necessary to compensate for the risk, making it an attractive purchase.
A is incorrect because securities above the SML are undervalued, not overvalued. Overvalued securities plot below the SML. C is incorrect because fairly valued securities plot on the SML itself, where actual returns match expected returns. D is incorrect because the position above the SML indicates valuation status, not absolute risk level. A security with low beta can plot above the SML and still be appropriate for conservative investors.
The Security Market Line is a core CAPM concept frequently tested on the exam. Understanding SML positioning helps you make buy, sell, or hold decisions based on whether securities offer adequate returns for their risk. Remember: above the line means buy (undervalued), below means sell (overvalued), on the line means fairly valued. This concept often appears in questions asking you to evaluate multiple securities or explain why an active manager might choose certain stocks over others.
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Access Free BetaA portfolio manager generates a return of 14% when the market returned 11%. If the portfolio has a beta of 1.2 and the risk-free rate is 3%, what is the portfolio's alpha?
B is correct. First, calculate the expected return using CAPM: Expected Return = Rf + β(Rm - Rf) = 3% + 1.2(11% - 3%) = 3% + 1.2(8%) = 3% + 9.6% = 12.6%. Then calculate alpha: Alpha = Actual Return - Expected Return = 14% - 12.6% = 1.4%. The positive alpha indicates the manager outperformed expectations by 1.4%.
A (0.4%) makes an error in the beta adjustment calculation. C (3.0%) incorrectly subtracts the risk-free rate from the actual return instead of calculating expected return first. D (5.6%) incorrectly calculates alpha as the difference between actual return and risk-free rate, ignoring the beta-adjusted market risk premium.
Alpha is a key performance measure on the exam, testing whether managers add value beyond what their risk exposure would predict. Positive alpha suggests skill, while negative alpha suggests underperformation. This calculation combines CAPM understanding with performance evaluation, two important Series 65 topics. Questions often present manager returns and ask you to determine whether the manager truly added value or simply took more risk. Alpha helps separate skill from risk-taking.
Which of the following correlation coefficients would provide the GREATEST diversification benefit when combining two securities in a portfolio?
D is correct. A correlation of -0.8 (negative correlation) provides the greatest diversification benefit. When securities move in opposite directions, combining them significantly reduces portfolio volatility. Perfect negative correlation (-1.0) would provide maximum theoretical benefit, but -0.8 is still highly beneficial.
A (+1.0) provides no diversification benefit because perfectly correlated securities move together identically. B (+0.5) provides some diversification benefit, but positive correlation means securities still tend to move together. C (0.0) provides moderate benefit since the securities move independently, but negative correlation is more powerful for risk reduction.
Correlation is fundamental to portfolio construction and appears frequently on the exam. Understanding how correlation affects diversification helps you build portfolios that efficiently reduce risk. The exam often asks you to identify which asset pairs provide the best diversification or explain why certain combinations reduce volatility more effectively than others. Remember: lower correlation equals greater diversification benefit, with negative correlations offering the most powerful risk reduction. This concept connects directly to asset allocation strategies.
According to Modern Portfolio Theory, approximately how many securities are needed to eliminate most unsystematic risk from a portfolio?
C is correct. Research shows that portfolios containing approximately 30 to 40 securities eliminate most unsystematic (company-specific) risk. Beyond this point, additional diversification provides diminishing marginal benefits. The remaining risk is systematic risk that cannot be diversified away.
A (5 to 10 securities) is insufficient to achieve adequate diversification. While it provides some risk reduction, significant unsystematic risk remains. B (15 to 20 securities) provides substantial diversification but research indicates more holdings are optimal. D (100 or more securities) is unnecessary. While not harmful, adding securities beyond 40 provides minimal additional risk reduction and may increase costs and complexity.
This specific number appears regularly on Series 65 exams and helps you understand practical portfolio construction. The exam may ask how many holdings achieve adequate diversification or why adding more securities beyond a certain point has limited benefit. This concept also helps you evaluate whether a portfolio is appropriately diversified and understand the difference between unsystematic risk (which can be eliminated) and systematic risk (which remains). Remember that correlation matters too, so 30 highly correlated stocks provide less benefit than 30 stocks across different sectors and asset classes.
A stock has a beta of 0.7. Compared to the overall market, this stock is considered:
B is correct. A beta of 0.7 means the stock is less volatile than the market. When the market moves up or down by 10%, this stock would typically move only 7% in the same direction. Stocks with beta less than 1.0 are considered defensive because they provide some cushion during market declines.
A is incorrect because stocks with beta greater than 1.0 are more volatile and aggressive, not less. C is incorrect because equally volatile stocks have a beta of 1.0. D is incorrect because negative beta indicates negative correlation with the market. This stock's positive beta of 0.7 means it moves in the same direction as the market, just with less magnitude.
Beta interpretation is a fundamental exam concept that appears in multiple contexts. Understanding beta helps you assess portfolio risk, make asset allocation decisions, and explain volatility expectations to clients. The exam frequently tests whether you can identify defensive (beta less than 1) versus aggressive (beta greater than 1) securities. Beta also connects to CAPM calculations, performance evaluation, and risk management. Remember: beta measures systematic risk only, and it's always relative to the market (which has beta of 1.0 by definition).
What is the primary difference between the Security Market Line (SML) and the Capital Market Line (CML)?
A is correct. The Security Market Line uses beta (systematic risk only) on the x-axis, while the Capital Market Line uses standard deviation (total risk) on the x-axis. Both show expected return on the y-axis, but they measure risk differently. SML applies to all assets and portfolios, while CML applies only to efficient portfolios.
B is incorrect because both SML and CML can apply to various asset types. The key difference is the risk measure used, not the asset coverage. C is incorrect because both SML and CML deal with expected returns, not the distinction between historical and expected. D is incorrect because the active versus passive distinction is not what differentiates these lines. CML applies to efficient portfolios regardless of whether they're actively or passively managed.
Understanding the difference between SML and CML is important for exam questions about risk measurement and portfolio evaluation. The exam may present scenarios asking which line to use for specific analyses or why beta versus standard deviation matters. SML's use of beta makes sense because CAPM focuses on systematic risk as the only compensated risk. CML's use of standard deviation reflects total portfolio risk for efficient portfolios. This distinction helps you understand when to use each tool and reinforces that beta measures only systematic risk while standard deviation captures all volatility.
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