Definition
Anti-Money Laundering (AML)
Federal regulatory framework established by the Bank Secrecy Act (1970) and USA PATRIOT Act (2001) requiring financial institutions to detect and prevent money laundering. Requires broker-dealers to file Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) on suspicious transactions involving or aggregating $5,000 or more, whether or not a suspect is identified, a Customer Identification Program (CIP) that collects identifying information before an account is opened and verifies identity within a reasonable time before or after opening, and complete AML compliance programs. FinCEN 2024 rule extends SAR filing requirements to most SEC-registered investment advisers and to exempt reporting advisers effective January 1, 2028; it excludes advisers registered with the SEC only as mid-sized advisers, multi-state advisers or pension consultants, and those reporting no assets under management.
A broker-dealer notices a customer making multiple wire transfers of $4,800 each to offshore accounts with no clear investment purpose. Despite each transfer being under $5,000, the pattern is suspicious and the firm must file a SAR without notifying the customer (no tip-off rule).
Students often confuse the broker-dealer SAR threshold ($5,000 or more, suspect or not) with the CTR threshold (cash over $10,000), or believe SARs only apply to broker-dealers when the FinCEN 2024 rule now requires most SEC-registered investment advisers and exempt reporting advisers to file SARs starting January 1, 2028. The no tip-off rule means a filing firm cannot tell customers a SAR was filed.
How is Anti-Money Laundering (AML) tested on the exam?
- Identifying when a broker-dealer must file a SAR ($5,000 or more, suspect identified or not) and when the 30-day deadline can extend to 60 days
- Understanding Customer Identification Program (CIP) requirements including name, date of birth, physical address, and taxpayer ID
- Recognizing the no tip-off rule that prohibits notifying customers about SAR filings
- Distinguishing between the broker-dealer SAR threshold ($5,000 or more), the CTR threshold (more than $10,000 in currency), and the beneficial ownership threshold (25%+ equity)
- Knowing which investment advisers are subject to FinCEN 2024 rule (most SEC-registered and all exempt reporting advisers, not state-registered)
Regulatory limits
Regulatory Limits
| Description | Limit | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| SAR filing threshold (broker-dealer) | $5,000 or more, suspect identified or not | File within 30 calendar days of initial detection |
| SAR filing deadline (no suspect identified) | Up to 60 calendar days after initial detection | 30 days plus up to 30 more days to identify a suspect; the $5,000 broker-dealer threshold does not change |
| Currency Transaction Report (CTR) threshold | More than $10,000 in currency | Filed within 15 days after the transaction |
| Beneficial ownership threshold (CDD Rule) | 25% or more equity ownership | Must identify natural persons owning 25%+ of legal entity customers |
| SAR retention period | 5 years | Keep SARs and supporting documentation for 5 years |
| FinCEN Investment Adviser Rule compliance date | January 1, 2028 | Most SEC-registered investment advisers and all exempt reporting advisers must comply; advisers registered with the SEC only as mid-sized advisers, multi-state advisers or pension consultants, those reporting no assets under management, and state-registered advisers are not covered |
Remember "SAR = See And Report" for suspicious activity: $5,000 or more at a broker-dealer, suspect or not, but never tell the customer (no tip-off rule). Think of CIP as "Can I Prove" identity: Name, Birthday, Physical address (never PO Box), taxpayer ID number (an SSN for most U.S. individuals). For the "5 Pillars of AML": Policies, Compliance Officer, Training, Testing, CDD (added as fifth pillar in 2016).
Practice questions
Test your understanding with the questions below. Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
David, a registered representative at a broker-dealer, services the brokerage account of Jennifer, a long-time client with a consistent investment pattern. Over the past month, Jennifer has made six wire transfers of $4,200 each to an overseas account, claiming they are for "family support." Jennifer becomes agitated when David asks for documentation and requests no further questions. What is David's appropriate course of action under AML regulations?
C is correct. The six transfers totaling $25,200 ($4,200 ร 6) to an overseas account, out of line with Jennifer's history and paired with her evasive behavior, are suspicious activity. A broker-dealer must report a suspicious transaction or pattern that involves or aggregates $5,000 or more, whether or not a suspect is identified, so David escalates to the firm's AML officer and the firm files the SAR. No one may tell Jennifer, because disclosing a SAR or any information that would reveal its existence is prohibited.
A is incorrect because refusing service without reporting is insufficient; the suspicious pattern requires a SAR. B is incorrect because the confidentiality rule prohibits telling the client anything that would reveal a SAR, which could compromise investigations. D is incorrect because the $5,000 threshold applies to the aggregated pattern, not to each transfer, and the firm must file within 30 calendar days of initial detection.
The Series 65 exam tests your understanding of SAR filing thresholds and the critical no tip-off rule. Financial professionals must recognize suspicious patterns (structuring, evasive behavior, unusual transactions) and understand that the $5,000 threshold applies to aggregated suspicious activity, not individual transactions. Most SEC-registered advisers, and exempt reporting advisers, take on the same SAR duty when the FinCEN adviser rule applies on January 1, 2028. The confidentiality rule bars disclosing a SAR or anything that would reveal one, apart from narrow exceptions such as disclosures to FinCEN, law enforcement and examining regulators.
Under the Customer Identification Program (CIP) requirements of the USA PATRIOT Act, which of the following information must be obtained before opening a new customer account?
B is correct. Before opening an account, a CIP must obtain at least four items: (1) name, (2) date of birth for an individual, (3) for an individual, a residential or business street address, and (4) an identification number (a taxpayer identification number for a U.S. person). The firm then verifies identity within a reasonable time before or after the account is opened, using documents, non-documentary methods, or both.
A is incorrect because a PO Box is not a street address; only an individual with no street address may give an APO or FPO box number or the street address of a next of kin or other contact. C is incorrect because approximate age and employment history are not CIP items; the rule requires the date of birth. D is incorrect because bank references and income level are suitability considerations, not CIP requirements.
The Series 65 exam frequently tests CIP requirements because they are fundamental to opening accounts in compliance with the USA PATRIOT Act. Representatives must know that a PO Box is not a street address and that a firm may verify identity through documents, non-documentary methods, or both. These requirements help prevent money laundering and terrorism financing.
A client deposits $11,500 in cash into their investment account to fund a new securities purchase. The next day, the same client makes a $6,000 wire transfer to the account. Which reporting requirement(s) apply to these transactions?
A is correct. The $11,500 cash deposit exceeds the $10,000 CTR threshold, requiring a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) to be filed within 15 days using FinCEN Form 112. The subsequent wire transfer does not trigger additional reporting unless there are suspicious circumstances.
B is incorrect because total transaction amount alone does not trigger SAR filing; there must be suspicious activity such as money laundering, fraud, or structuring. C is incorrect because these transactions do not show a structuring pattern (deliberately breaking transactions into smaller amounts to avoid the $10,000 CTR threshold); one large cash deposit followed by a legitimate wire transfer is not inherently suspicious. D is incorrect because the CTR is required for the $11,500 cash deposit regardless of the wire transfer.
The Series 65 exam tests your ability to distinguish between mandatory CTR reporting (cash transactions over $10,000) and SAR reporting (suspicious activity). Understanding that CTRs must be filed even for legitimate transactions while SARs require suspicious circumstances is critical for AML compliance.
All of the following statements about Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) are accurate except
C is correct (the exception). Financial institutions are strictly prohibited from notifying customers that a SAR has been filed. This "no tip-off rule" bars disclosing a SAR or any information that would reveal its existence, apart from narrow authorized disclosures such as those to FinCEN, law enforcement and examining regulators. Alerting a subject to SAR filing could compromise law enforcement investigations by allowing money launderers to move funds or destroy evidence.
A is accurate: When suspicious activity is detected and a suspect is identified, the SAR must be filed within 30 days. If no suspect is identified, there is an additional 30-day extension (60 days total). B is accurate: The Bank Secrecy Act provides safe harbor protection, granting immunity from civil liability for financial institutions that file SARs in good faith, encouraging reporting without fear of lawsuits. D is accurate: SARs and all supporting documentation must be retained for 5 years to comply with recordkeeping requirements.
The Series 65 exam tests the no tip-off rule extensively because it is counterintuitive (most regulations require disclosure) and violations carry severe penalties. Understanding SAR confidentiality requirements, filing deadlines, safe harbor protection, and retention periods is essential for AML compliance and avoiding regulatory violations.
The FinCEN Investment Adviser Rule finalized in August 2024 extends AML requirements to certain investment advisers effective January 1, 2028. Which of the following advisers are subject to this new rule?
1. SEC-registered investment advisers (RIAs) with $100 million or more in regulatory assets under management
2. State-registered investment advisers
3. Exempt reporting advisers (ERAs)
4. Family offices
B is correct. Only statements 1 and 3 are accurate regarding FinCEN Investment Adviser Rule coverage.
Statement 1 is true: SEC-registered investment advisers (RIAs) of this size are covered by the FinCEN 2024 rule and must establish AML/CFT programs, file SARs for suspicious transactions aggregating $5,000+, and comply with BSA recordkeeping requirements starting January 1, 2028. The rule does exclude some RIAs: those registered with the SEC only as mid-sized advisers, multi-state advisers or pension consultants, and those reporting no assets under management.
Statement 2 is false: State-registered investment advisers are not covered by the FinCEN 2024 rule. The rule applies only to certain SEC-registered advisers and to exempt reporting advisers, not to state-registered advisers.
Statement 3 is true: Exempt reporting advisers (ERAs) such as venture capital fund advisers and private fund advisers are covered by the FinCEN 2024 rule despite being exempt from full SEC registration.
Statement 4 is false: A family office is excluded from the Advisers Act definition of investment adviser, so it is neither an SEC-registered adviser nor an exempt reporting adviser and falls outside the rule.
The Series 65 exam tests understanding of the FinCEN 2024 rule because it represents a major expansion of AML requirements to investment advisers for the first time. Knowing which advisers are covered (most SEC-registered advisers and exempt reporting advisers) versus excluded (state-registered advisers and family offices) is essential for determining compliance obligations and the January 1, 2028 effective date.
What concepts relate to Anti-Money Laundering (AML)?
This term is part of this cluster :
Where does Anti-Money Laundering (AML) appear on the Series 6 exam?
This term is tested in the following FINRA Series 6 topic areas: